ISTQB exam questions and answers
1. How much testing is enough?
a.This question is impossible to answer
b.This question is easy to answer
c.The answer depends on the risk for your industry, contract and special requirements
d.This answer depends on the maturity of your developers
2. Test planning has which of the following major tasks?
i. Determining the scope and risks, and identifying the objectives of testing.
ii. Determining the test approach (techniques, test items, coverage, identifying and interfacing the teams
Involved in testing, test ware)
iii. Reviewing the Test Basis (such as requirements, architecture, design, interface)
iv. Determining the exit criteria.
a) i,ii,iv are true and iii is false
b) i,,iv are true and ii is false
c) i,ii are true and iii,iv are false
d) ii,iii,iv are true and i is false
3. To test a function, the programmer has to write a _________, which calls the function to be tested and passes it test data.
a.stub b.driver c.proxy d.none of the above
4. Evaluating testability of the requirements and system are a part of which phase?
a) Test Analysis and Design
b) Test Planning and control
c) Test Implementation and execution
d) Evaluating exit criteria and reporting
A test design technique is
a.a process for selecting test cases
b.a process for determining expected outputs
c.a way to measure the quality of software
d.a way to measure in a test plan what has to be done
5. Which of the following is true of the V-model?
a.It states that modules are tested against user requirements
b.It only models the testing phase
c.It specifies the test techniques to be used
d.It includes the verification of designs
6. Which is not the fundamental test process
a.Planning and control
b.Test closure activities
c.Analysis and design
7. One of the fields on a form contains a text box which accepts alphabets in lower or upper case.
Indentify the invalid Equivalence class value.
8.Consider the following statements about early test design:
i. early test design can prevent fault multiplication
ii. faults found during early test design are more expensive to fix
iii. early test design can find faults
iv. early test design can cause changes to the requirements
v. early test design takes more effort
a. i, iii & iv are true. Ii & v are false
b.iii is true, I, ii, iv & v are false
c.iii & iv are true. i, ii & v are false
d.i, iii, iv & v are true, ii us false
e.i & iii are true, ii, iv & v are false
9.In a system designed to work out the tax to be paid: An employee has £4000 of salary tax free. The next £1500 is taxed at 10% The next £28000 is taxed at 22% Any further amount is taxed at 40% Which of these groups of numbers would fall into the same equivalence class?
a) £4800; £14000; £28000
b) £5200; £5500; £28000
c) £28001; £32000; £35000
d) £5800; £28000; £32000
10. which of the following statements is not true
a. performance testing can be done during unit testing as well as during the testing of whole system
b. The acceptance test does not necessarily include a regression test
c. Verification activities should not involve testers (reviews, inspections etc)
d. Test environments should be as similar to production environments as possible
11. Which of the following requirements is testable?
a.The system shall be user friendly
b.The safety-critical parts of the system shall contain 0 faults
c.The response time shall be less than one second for the specified design load
d.The system shall be built to be portable
12.Which of the following has highest level of independence in which test cases are ?
a) Designed by persons who write the software under test
b) Designed by a person from a different section
c) Designed by a person from a different organization
d) Designed by another person
13. We use the output of the requirement analysis, the requirement specification as the input for writing :-
a) User Acceptance Test Cases
b) Integration Level Test Cases
c) Unit Level Test Cases
d) Program specifications
14.From the below given choices, which one is the â€˜Confidence testing
15. The oracle assumption:
a.is that there is some existing system against which test output may be checked
b.is that the tester can routinely identify the correct outcome of a test
c.is that the tester knows everything about the software under test
d.is that the tests are reviewed by experienced testers
16. Validation involves which of the following:-
i. Helps to check the Quality of the Built Product
ii. Helps to check that we have built the right product.
iii. Helps in developing the product
iv. Monitoring tool wastage and obsoleteness.
a) Options i,ii,iii,iv are true.
b) ii is true and i,iii,iv are false
c) i,ii,iii are true and iv is false
d) iii is true and i,ii,iv are false.
17. Which of the following uses Impact Analysis most?
a) Component testing
b) Non-functional system testing
c) User acceptance testing
d) Maintenance testing
18. What is the expected result for each of the following test cases?
A. Citibank card member, holding a Silver room
B. Non Citibank-member, holding a Platinum room
a) A – Don’t offer any upgrade ,B –Don’t offer any upgrade.
b) A – Don’t offer any upgrade, B – Offer upgrade to Gold.
c) A –Offer upgrade to Silver, B – Offer upgrade to Silver.
19. Repeated Testing of an already tested program, after modification, to discover any defects introduced or uncovered as a result of the changes in the soft ware being tested or in another related or unrelated software component:
a) Re Testing.
b) Confirmation Testing
c) Regression Testing
d) Negative Testing
20. Impact Analysis helps to decide:-
a) How much regression testing should be done.
b) Exit Criteria
c) How many more test cases need to written
d) Different Tools to perform Regression Testing
21. Functional system testing is:
a) Testing that the system functions with other systems
b) Testing that the components that comprise the system function together
c) Testing the end to end functionality of the system as a whole
d) Testing the system performs functions within specified response times
22. Which is not a testing principle
Principle 1 Testing shows presence of defects
Principle 2 Exhaustive testing is impossible
Principle 3 Early Testing
Principle 4 Defect Clustering
Principle 5 Pesticide Paradox
Principle 6 Testing is context dependent
Principle 7 Absence of errors – fallacy
23. The difference between re-testing and regression testing is:
a. re-testing is running a test again; regression testing looks for unexpected side effects
b.re-testing looks for unexpected side effects; regression testing is repeating those tests
c.re-testing is done after faults are fixed; regression testing is done earlier
d.re-testing uses different environments, regression testing uses the same environment
e.re-testing is done by developers, regression testing is done by independent testers
24. What statement about expected outcomes is FALSE:
a.expected outcomes are defined by the software’s behaviour
b.expected outcomes are derived from a specification, not from the code
c.expected outcomes include outputs to a screen and changes to files and databases
d.expected outcomes should be predicted before a test is run
e.expected outcomes may include timing constraints such as response times
25. In practice, which Life Cycle model may have more, fewer or different levels of development and testing, depending on the project and the software product. For example, there may be component integration testing after component testing, and system integration testing after system testing.
a.Water Fall Model
26. Peer Reviews are also called as :-
c) Technical Review
d) Formal Review
27. Consider the following statements:
i. 100% statement coverage guarantees 100% branch coverage.
ii. 100% branch coverage guarantees 100% statement coverage.
iii. 100% branch coverage guarantees 100% decision coverage.
iv. 100% decision coverage guarantees 100% branch coverage.
v. 100% statement coverage guarantees 100% decision coverage.
a) ii is True; i, iii, iv & v are False
b) i & v are True; ii, iii & iv are False
c) ii & iii are True; i, iv & v are False
d) ii, iii & iv are True; i & v are False
28. The Kick Off phase of a formal review includes the following:-
a) Explaining the objective
b) Fixing defects found typically done by author
c) Follow up
d) Individual Meeting preparations
29. Match every stage of the software Development Life cycle with the Testing Life cycle:
i. Hi-level design (a) Unit tests
ii. Code (b) Acceptance tests
iii. Low-level design (c) System tests
iv. Business requirements (d) Integration tests
a) i-d , ii-a , iii-c , iv-b
b) i-c , ii-d , iii-a , iv-b
c) i-b , ii-a , iii-d , iv-c
d) i-c , ii-a , iii-d , iv-b
30. Which of the following is the task of a Test Lead / Leader.
i. Interaction with the Test Tool Vendor to identify best ways to leverage test tool on the project.
ii. Write Test Summary Reports based on the information gathered during testing
iii. Decide what should be automated , to what degree and how.
iv. Create the Test Specifications
a) i, ii, iii is true and iv is false
b) ii,iii,iv is true and i is false
c) i is true and ii,iii,iv are false
d) iii and iv is correct and i and ii are incorrect
31. Features of White Box Testing Technique :-
i. We use explicit knowledge of the internal workings of the item being tested to select the test data.
ii. Uses specific knowledge of programming code to examine outputs and assumes that the tester knows the path of logic in a unit or a program
iii. Checking for the performance of the application
iv. Also checks for functionality.
a) i, ii are true and iii and iv are false
b) iii is true and i,ii, iv are false
c) ii ,iii is true and i,iv is false
d) iii and iv are true and i,ii are false
32. Which of the following is a part of Test Closure Activities ?
i. Checking which planned deliverables have been delivered
ii. Defect report analysis.
iii. Finalizing and archiving testware.
iv. Analyzing lessons.
a) i , ii , iv are true and iii is false
b) i , ii , iii are true and iv is false
c) i , iii , iv are true and ii is false
d) All of above are true
33. Which of the following will be the best definition for Testing :-
a) The goal / purpose of testing is to demonstrate that the program works.
b) The purpose of testing is to demonstrate that the program is defect free.
c) The purpose of testing is to demonstrate that the program does what it is supposed to do.
d) Testing is executing Software for the purpose of finding defects.
34. Which of the following is not a type of incremental testing approach?
a) Top down
b) Big- bang
c) Bottom up
d) Functional incrimination.
35. Drivers are also known as:
ii. Test harness
a) i , ii are true and iii is false
b) i , iii are true and ii is false
c) ii , iii are true and i is false
d) All of the above are true
36. Exit Criteria may consist of :-
i. Thoroughness measures , such as coverage of code, functionality or risk
ii. Estimates of Defect density or reliability measures.
iii. Residual risk such as defects not fixed or lack of test coverage in certain areas
iv. Verifying the Test Environment.
a) iv is correct and i,ii,iii are incorrect.
b) i,ii,iii is correct and iv is incorrect
c) ii is correct and i,ii,iii are incorrect
d) iii and iv are correct and i,ii are incorrect
37 Which of the following helps in monitoring the Test Progress:-
i. Percentage of Test Case Execution
ii. Percentage of work done in test environment preparation.
iii. Defect Information e.g. defect density, defects found and fixed
iv. The size of the testing Team and skills of the engineers
a) iv is correct and i,ii,iii are incorrect
b) i,ii,iii are correct and iv is incorrect
c) i,ii are correct and iii,iv are incorrect
d) i,iv are correct and ii , iii are incorrect
38. The selection of a test approach should consider the context :-
i. Risk of Failure of the Project, hazards to the product and risks of product failure to humans
ii. Skills and experience of the people in the proposed technique, tools and methods
iii. The objective of the testing endeavour and the mission of the testing team
iv. The size of the testing Team
a) i,ii,iii,iv are true
b) i,ii,iii are true and iv is false.
c) ii,iii,iv are true and i is false.
d) i,iv are true and ii, iii are false.
39. In case of Large Systems :-
a) Only few tests should be run
b) Testing should be on the basis of Risk
c) Only Good Test Cases should be executed.
d) Test Cases written by good test engineers should be executed.
40. The Provision and Management of a controlled library containing all the configurations items is called as
a) Configuration Control
b) Status Accounting
c) Configuration Identification
d) Configuration Identification
41. Enough testing has been performed when:
a.time runs out
b.the required level of confidence has been achieved
c.no more faults are found
d.the users wonâ€™t find any serious faults
42. Testing should be stopped when:
a.1 – all the planned tests have been run
b.2 – time has run out
c.all faults have been fixed correctly
d.it depends on the risks for the system being tested
e.both 1 and 2
43.Pick the best definition of quality
a. Quality is job one
b. Zero defects
c. Conformance to requirements
d.Work as designed
44. The structure of an incident report is covered in the Standard for Software Test Documentation IEEE 829 and is called as : –
a) Anomaly Report
b) Defect Report
c) Test Defect Report
d) Test Incident Report
45. Which of the following is not phase of the Fundamental Test Process?
a) Test Planning and Control
b) Test implementation and Execution
c) Requirement Analysis
d) Evaluating Exit criteria and reporting
46. In which order should tests be run?
a.the most important tests first
b.the most difficult tests first(to allow maximum time for fixing)
c.the easiest tests first(to give initial confidence)
d.the order they are thought of
47.A failure is:
a.found in the software; the result of an error
b.deviation from specified behaviour
c.an incorrect step, process or data definition in a computer program
d.a human action that produces an incorrect result
48. Which of the following techniques is NOT a black box technique?
a) State transition testing
b) LCSAJ (Linear Code Sequence and Jump)
c) syntax testing
d) boundary value analysis
49. Poor software characteristics are
a.Only Project risks
b.Only Product risks
c.Project risks and Product risks
d.Project risks or Product risks
50. The most important thing about early test design is that it:
a.makes test preparation easier
b.means inspections are not required
c.can prevent fault multiplication
d.will find all faults
51. A test harness is a
a.A high level document describing the principles, approach and major objectives of the organization regarding testing
b.A distance set of test activities collected into a manageable phase of a project
c.A test environment comprised of stubs and drives needed to conduct a test
d.A set of several test cases for a component or system under test
52. What is the main reason for testing software before releasing it?
a.to show that system will work after release
b.to decide when the software is of sufficient quality to release
c.to find as many bugs as possible before release
d.to give information for a risk based decision about release
53. Error guessing is best used:
a.As the first approach to deriving test cases
b.After more formal techniques have been applied
c.By inexperienced testers
d.After the system has gone live
e.Only by end users
54. Which of these activities provides the biggest potential cost saving from the use of CAST?
55. When what is visible to end-users is a deviation from the specific or expected behavior, this is called:
56. Non-functional system testing includes:
a.testing to see where the system does not function properly
b.testing quality attributes of the system including performance and usability
c.testing a system feature using only the software required for that action
d.testing a system feature using only the software required for that function
e.testing for functions that should not exist
57. Which one of the following describes the major benefit of verification early in the life cycle?
a.It allows the identification of changes in user requirements
b.It facilitates timely set up of the test environment
c.It reduces defect multiplication
d.It allows testers to become involved early in the project
58. Which one of the following are non-functional testing methods?
d.Both b & c
59.The cost of fixing a fault:
a.is not important
b.Increases as we move the product towards live use
c.Decreases as we move the product towards live use
d.Is more expensive if found in requirements than functional design
e.Can never be determined
60. Regression testing should be performed:
b.after the software has changed
c.as often as possible
d.when the environment has changed
e.when the project manager says
Ans:b and d
61. Independent Verification & Validation is
a.Done by the Developer
b.Done by the Test Engineers
c.Done By Management
d.Done by an Entity Outside the Project sphere of influence
62. Which of the following should NOT normally be an objective for a test?
a.To find faults in the software
b.To assess whether the software is ready for release
c.To demonstrate that the software doesn’t work
d.To prove that the software is correct
63. Test cases are designed during:
64. We split testing into distinct stages primarily because:
a.Each test stage has a different purpose.
b.It is easier to manage testing in stages.
c.We can run different tests in different environments.
d.The more stages we have, the better the testing.
65. Which of the following functions is typically supported by a software quality information system?
I. Record keeping
II. System design
III. Evaluation scheduling
IV. Error reporting
a.I, II &III
b.II, III &IV
c.I, III &IV
d.I, II & IV
66. One Key reason why developers have difficulty testing their own work is :
a.Lack of technical documentation
b.Lack of test tools on the market for developers
c.Lack of training
d.Lack of Objectivity
67. When what is visible to end-users is a deviation from the specific or expected behavior, this is called:
a) an error b) a fault c) a failure d) a defect e) a mistake
68. Regression testing should be performed:
v) every week w) after the software has changed x) as often as possible
y) when the environment has changed z) when the project manager says
a) v & w are true, x – z are false
b) w, x & y are true, v & z are false
c) w & y are true, v, x & z are false
d) w is true, v, x y and z are false
e) all of the above are true
69. IEEE 829 test plan documentation standard contains all of the following except:
a) test items b) test deliverables
c) test tasks d) test environment e) test specification
70. Order numbers on a stock control system can range between 10000 and 99999 inclusive. Which of the following inputs might be a result of designing tests for only valid equivalence classes and valid boundaries:
a) 1000, 5000, 99999 b) 9999, 50000, 100000 c) 10000, 50000, 99999
d) 10000, 99999 e) 9999, 10000, 50000, 99999, 10000
71. Which of the following is NOT part of configuration management:
a) status accounting of configuration items
b) auditing conformance to ISO9001
c) identification of test versions
d) record of changes to documentation over time
e) controlled library access
72. Which of the following is the main purpose of the integration strategy for integration testing in the small?
a) to ensure that all of the small modules are tested adequately
b) to ensure that the system interfaces to other systems and networks
c) to specify which modules to combine when and how many at once
d) to ensure that the integration testing can be performed by a small team
e) to specify how the software should be divided into modules
73. What is the purpose of test completion criteria in a test plan:
a) to know when a specific test has finished its execution
b) to ensure that the test case specification is complete
c) to set the criteria used in generating test inputs
d) to know when test planning is complete
e) to plan when to stop testing
74. Consider the following statements
i. an incident may be closed without being fixed
ii. incidents may not be raised against documentation
iii. the final stage of incident tracking is fixing
iv. the incident record does not include information on test environments
v. incidents should be raised when someone other than the author of the software performs the test
a) ii and v are true, I, iii and iv are false b) i and v are true, ii, iii and iv are false
c) i, iv and v are true, ii and iii are false d) i and ii are true, iii, iv and v are false
e) i is true, ii, iii, iv and v are false
75. Given the following:
Switch PC on
IF outlook appears THEN
Send an email
a) 1 test for statement coverage, 1 for branch coverage
b) 1 test for statement coverage, 2 for branch coverage
c) 1 test for statement coverage. 3 for branch coverage
d) 2 tests for statement coverage, 2 for branch coverage
e) 2 tests for statement coverage, 3 for branch coverage
76. Given the following code, which is true:
IF A > B THEN
C = A – B
C = A + B
Read D IF C = D Then
Print “Error” ENDIF
a) 1 test for statement coverage, 3 for branch coverage
b) 2 tests for statement coverage, 2 for branch coverage
c) 2 tests for statement coverage. 3 for branch coverage
d) 3 tests for statement coverage, 3 for branch coverage
e) 3 tests for statement coverage, 2 for branch coverage
77. Consider the following:
Pick up and read the newspaper
Look at what is on television
If there is a program that you are interested in watching then switch the television on and watch the program
Continue reading the newspaper
If there is a crossword in the newspaper then try and complete the crossword
SC = 1 and DC = 1
b) SC = 1 and DC = 2
c) SC = 1 and DC = 3
d) SC = 2 and DC = 2
e) SC = 2 and DC = 3
78. The place to start if you want a (new) test tool is:
a) Attend a tool exhibition
b) Invite a vendor to give a demo
c) Analyse your needs and requirements
d) Find out what your budget would be for the tool
e) Search the internet
79. When a new testing tool is purchased, it should be used first by:
a) A small team to establish the best way to use the tool
b) Everyone who may eventually have some use for the tool
c) The independent testing team
d) The managers to see what projects it should be used in
e) The vendor contractor to write the initial scripts
80. What can static analysis NOT find?
a) The use of a variable before it has been defined
b) Unreachable (“dead”) code
c) Whether the value stored in a variable is correct
d) The re-definition of a variable before it has been used
e) Array bound violations